RE: Biblical Date Rape
July 28, 2016 at 9:49 pm
(This post was last modified: July 28, 2016 at 9:51 pm by Huggy Bear.)
(July 28, 2016 at 9:21 pm)chimp3 Wrote:(July 28, 2016 at 9:09 pm)Huggy74 Wrote: Here's the thing, the conception of Jesus was an A-sexual event (which is a thing in nature, look it up). God doesn't need help to create, but reason that God used Mary in this manner is that way back in Genesis he said that the woman would have a seed, I suppose that i don't have to tell you guys that only men have "seed". Jesus was the woman's seed.
The scriptures cannot be broken.
This was to fulfill the law of the kinsman redeemer. In Hebrew law, if a person lost his possessions, or sold himself into servitude, then a relative could come and buy it or him back.
Jesus is our kinsman redeemer, he came to buy back all that Adam had lost with his own blood (Jesus was neither Jew or Gentile, his blood was the creative blood of God), there for he had to be born of a woman just like we were, which makes him human and therefore related to us, if he'd just came down from heaven, then he'd have no relation to us, and that would break the scriptures.
Here is the thing! God date raped Mary to get the job done. Oh , and by the way , I was born free. I need no redeemer. All any man or god can do is try and take my freedom away. So were all women born free. Why you think we are beholden to the curses and superstitions of iron aged desert nomads is beyond me. Let the dead sleep with the dead , man. We are alive today!
Since you want to continue along this silly notion of "rape" despite me explaining how sex was in no way, shape or form involved, how about this.
If you read crossless's post you'd see that Mary clearly gave her consent
Quote:38 “I am the Lord’s servant,” Mary answered. “May your word to me be fulfilled.” Then the angel left her
It's not rape if there was consent given... right?
