RE: On Moral Authorities
November 11, 2016 at 6:45 pm
(This post was last modified: November 11, 2016 at 7:00 pm by theologian.
Edit Reason: Correcting order of my reasoning in number 1.
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(November 11, 2016 at 6:30 pm)Rhythm Wrote:(November 11, 2016 at 6:25 pm)theologian Wrote: Well, if Christ is God, and God created everything objective, then Christ's rules will be the objective rule.-which would be an inconsistent usage of the terms negation. But let lay that aside. If god created everything objective, and it;s being objective -whetever- has to do with having been created as such by a god..could god have created these moral rules -as- objective moral rules however he chose them to be? Say, sexual abuse was morally good...objectively? [1]
( may as well just tell you now, if you keep providing these answers you were clearly taught as rote response...you;re going to keep falling into easily avoided pits of your own digging) [2]
1. No, for God is Simple Being. So, in God, His Intellect and Will are one. So, sexual abuse will be always morally wrong with God.
2. Well, if you may, please let me know how I have been inconsistent in the usage of the terms negation.
(November 10, 2016 at 7:34 am)Tonus Wrote: But I still think that you are working backwards. Are particular actions good/bad because God says they are good/bad? [1]
Or is God only recognizing actions as good/bad because they are objectively so? [2]
If God says "action A is bad" but later orders a person to commit that act, is the latter good even though God has identified it as bad in a general sense? [3]
1. Yes
2. No
3. That can't be. I presume that misunderstanding of the general rule is the source of apparent contradiction.