(October 6, 2011 at 7:19 pm)aleialoura Wrote:(October 6, 2011 at 6:46 pm)fr0d0 Wrote: And why is that sex drive there aleialora? Isn't it there so that we reproduce?If sex drives were present solely for reproduction purposes, then men who have had vasectomies, women who have had hysterectomies, or a tubal ligation, would no longer have sex drives.
Also, women and men who were born with no means to reproduce would never go through puberty, or have any desire to have sex.
Sex IS for more than reproduction.
(October 6, 2011 at 9:09 pm)Epimethean Wrote: This is a sticky argument, because masturbation is not for the purpose of making babies, and homosexual couples can have babies via the same methods infertile couples or single people do: Adoption or in vitro (even via surrogacy).The instinct to reproduce has to be strong because it is instrumental in continuing the species. We don't have sex because we think about wanting babies, we have sex because we have strong sexual drive. That only exists because of the reproductive consequences.
It makes no difference if people have the function disabled... the drive is still there, the pleasure that is part of the function doesn't need all of the rest of the mechanism to be working.
Sure people of the same sex can excite the sexual organs of other people, and excite themselves, but the reason those organs work like that is because of the species' necessety for them to work like that, to produce offspring.
Sex works outside of reproduction, but came about because of reproduction.