(June 17, 2014 at 9:46 pm)fr0d0 Wrote:(June 17, 2014 at 9:24 pm)Irrational Wrote: No, they don't. They employ both rationalism and empiricism. You are still referring to that old definition of rationalism you hold to. The problem is that we're in the 21st century now.
The 21st century where every dictionary has what you call the old definition as the current definition.
So if you, as an empiricist atheist, for example, are faced with a purely rational problem, would you be able to consider it?
Disregarding the "purely" term, provided it really is rational and is based on (or confirmed by) empirical evidence, then yes.
But as for purely rational problem, provide an example so I know what you're on about.