Ok, another issue related to division by 0, this time in the context of trigonometry.
Since cot(x) is, as far as I know, the same as cos(x)/sin(x), then:
cot(pi/2) = cos(pi/2) / sin(pi/2) = 0/1 = 0 in radians
But cot(x) has also been equated to 1/tan(x) from what I've read, but if that's the case, then:
cot(pi/2) = 1/tan(pi/2) = 1/undefined = undefined?
So there's a contradiction here. In the case of pi/2, cos(x)/sin(x) != 1/tan(x). What gives? Is the answer found in calculus itself (with the limits and all)? Or is it a bit misleading to say that cot(x) = 1/tan(x)?
Since cot(x) is, as far as I know, the same as cos(x)/sin(x), then:
cot(pi/2) = cos(pi/2) / sin(pi/2) = 0/1 = 0 in radians
But cot(x) has also been equated to 1/tan(x) from what I've read, but if that's the case, then:
cot(pi/2) = 1/tan(pi/2) = 1/undefined = undefined?
So there's a contradiction here. In the case of pi/2, cos(x)/sin(x) != 1/tan(x). What gives? Is the answer found in calculus itself (with the limits and all)? Or is it a bit misleading to say that cot(x) = 1/tan(x)?
