RE: Why did god create evil?
November 30, 2011 at 9:29 am
(This post was last modified: November 30, 2011 at 9:30 am by Epimethean.)
You are twisting Ovid to suit your argument. Not so easy, though very convenient.
Here is the text to which I believe you are referring:
Aurea prima sata est aetas, quae vindice nullo,
sponte sua, sine lege fidem rectumque colebat.
poena metusque aberant, nec verba minantia fixo
aere legebantur, nec supplex turba timebat
iudicis ora sui, sed erant sine vindice tuti.
When you suggest, via the translation of another, that we can then back transliterate and supply whatever word we like to make a connection, you literally pervert the original to your purpose. This passage does speak of an early time when men were not under judgement, but it does not suggest that this was an xtian god, a monotheistic one at all, nor that there were angels or any other silly conflation of the judeo-xtian myths with the pre-xtian ones. This is no substantiation for your contention-none whatever. As an influential member of the highest level of sponsored poets, Ovid most certainly had access to eastern knowledge. Your suggestion to the contrary is one of convenience, not supportable fact. The Romans had direct access to Alexandria, Pergamum, Antioch, Ephesos, Colchis, etc., and so Ovid would have had access to resources from such, far and beyond the silly xtian sect, which was not considered very seriously at the time.
Here is the text to which I believe you are referring:
Aurea prima sata est aetas, quae vindice nullo,
sponte sua, sine lege fidem rectumque colebat.
poena metusque aberant, nec verba minantia fixo
aere legebantur, nec supplex turba timebat
iudicis ora sui, sed erant sine vindice tuti.
When you suggest, via the translation of another, that we can then back transliterate and supply whatever word we like to make a connection, you literally pervert the original to your purpose. This passage does speak of an early time when men were not under judgement, but it does not suggest that this was an xtian god, a monotheistic one at all, nor that there were angels or any other silly conflation of the judeo-xtian myths with the pre-xtian ones. This is no substantiation for your contention-none whatever. As an influential member of the highest level of sponsored poets, Ovid most certainly had access to eastern knowledge. Your suggestion to the contrary is one of convenience, not supportable fact. The Romans had direct access to Alexandria, Pergamum, Antioch, Ephesos, Colchis, etc., and so Ovid would have had access to resources from such, far and beyond the silly xtian sect, which was not considered very seriously at the time.
Trying to update my sig ...
