RE: Strict gun control in france.
December 3, 2015 at 6:03 pm
(This post was last modified: December 3, 2015 at 6:07 pm by CapnAwesome.)
(November 17, 2015 at 6:19 am)Thumpalumpacus Wrote:(November 17, 2015 at 5:12 am)CapnAwesome Wrote: Then what use are gun laws?
I'm guessing it has to do with lower per-capita murder rates, as spelt out above. You might want to read that post.
While you're at it, you might want to read, and perhaps answer if you're not too tired, my first post in this thread.
Finally, let me just say that your putative argument falls afoul of the guideline of let not the perfect be the enemy of the good. Simply because a law doesn't eliminate all acts it outlaws doesn't mean that law should be stricken.
I'd suggest that you start thinking without allowing your agenda (obvious as it is) to be your mental filter (again, obvious).
The statistic above wasn't a per captia murder rate. Why do people think that gun murders are the same as per capita murder stats. Oh yeah, because they are purposefully and manipulatively presented that way. Also this whole site has people who let their agenda be their mental filler. I'm not even particularly pro-gun, I don't own guns I would never give money to the NRA. I'm sick of the anti-gun people on here constantly using propaganda rather than examining actual causes of violence and the effect guns have on them. I've brought it up several times and several threads and nobody has ever replied: The UK passed it's gun laws in 1964. They didn't have a noticable effect on the murder rate. The UK has always had a lower murder rate than the US.