How can a Christian reject part of the Bible and still call themselves a Christian?

[vorlon13]

Then why aren't the moral majority types up to speed on that ?

Like I said, invoking one of 600 Levitican strictures, the one  against the gay people makes me wonder why then ALL the laws of Leviticus aren't similarly active.  It's very convenient that there is this INCREDIBLE coincidence the only law in Leviticus that is still in effect 2000 years after Jesus is the one against the gays.  Is there a New Testament bible verse that spells that out ??

Invoke one, just one of those laws in Leviticus, then they all otta be in play.  The only thing the christers have is some PERSON in their organization, decided on their own, that they were duly authorized by God Almighty to pick and choose which ones are still worth enforcing to deprive other people their rights, and which ones the flock can safely ignore since oh my God, it would be SO INCONVENIENT to have to follow the rest of them ourselves!

We are no longer under any of the old testament law presented in Leviticus and I'm not invoking any of them.

Romans 7:4-6New Living Translation (NLT)

4 So, my dear brothers and sisters, this is the point: You died to the power of the law when you died with Christ. And now you are united with the one who was raised from the dead. As a result, we can produce a harvest of good deeds for God. 5 When we were controlled by our old nature,[a] sinful desires were at work within us, and the law aroused these evil desires that produced a harvest of sinful deeds, resulting in death. 6 But now we have been released from the law, for we died to it and are no longer captive to its power. Now we can serve God, not in the old way of obeying the letter of the law, but in the new way of living in the Spirit.

Would a denomination that as matter of their intrinsic dogma, which selectively invokes portions of Leviticus then be a false religion ?