(January 18, 2018 at 9:03 pm)polymath257 Wrote:(November 27, 2017 at 3:35 pm)RoadRunner79 Wrote: No; I accept neither on epistemological grounds. You haven't provided sufficient evidence.
Do you agree, that between two similar scenarios given the same facts, and given the same reasons, that a coherent and consistent logical foundation should come to the same conclusion? If not, how do you logically justify the discrepancy.
One of the clear differences in the two scenarios is that people are known to have pet cats, and commonly do so. But nobody is known to have a pet invisible dragon.
If I live in a location where cats are never seen and someone local claimed to have a pet cat, I might well ask for more evidence to substantiate their claim.
This works for more ordinary examples. When I was growing up, having pet lizards was quite rare (I knew nobody who did), so someone claiming to have one would be asked for more proof.
Extraordinary claims demand extraordinary evidence.
Thanks, we had talked about this a while ago; so I’m going to recap. I find this maxim, to be vague, subjective, inconsistent, and unjustified. Your reply is very similar to what was said before, and I really never get anything when I ask why this should held, and people get upset when I use it. Perhaps you could answer the questions I asked.
It is said that an argument is what convinces reasonable men and a proof is what it takes to convince even an unreasonable man. - Alexander Vilenkin
If I am shown my error, I will be the first to throw my books into the fire. - Martin Luther
If I am shown my error, I will be the first to throw my books into the fire. - Martin Luther