(March 23, 2018 at 9:16 am)alpha male Wrote:(March 22, 2018 at 3:36 pm)Khemikal Wrote: That you think it's remarkable that a person would make a reference to some objective morality, rather than thinking it's remarkable to consider sex slaving expeditions into your neighbors country a remarkable inclusion in that objective morality....is remarkable.
I'd already rebutted the charge that they were sex slaves.
The the word "sex" out of it then. The Bible explicitly condones slavery, goes on to make laws regulating it, and doesn't bother to repeal any of it in the NT. Slavery is objectively immoral. It took humanity some time, but it looks like we finally figured that out. As I said before, there are some really powerful moral teachings in the Bible, but it is not a complete disclosure of objective morality. We can do better than the standard the Bible sets. Slavery is a perfect example of this.
PS: And back to the original point: even if you argue that the verses in question don't condone sex slavery, I think there are other passages that do.
