Does the Bible Contradict Itself?

[pgrimes15]

2KI 24:8 Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned in Jerusalem three months. And his mother's name was Nehushta, the daughter of Elnathan of Jerusalem.

2CH 36:9 Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned three months and ten days in Jerusalem: and he did that which was evil in the sight of the LORD.

Regards

Grimesy

2 Chronicles 36:5 says, "Jehoiakim was twenty-five years old when he became king, and he reigned in Jerusalem eleven years." Going back to the original Hebrew, this would be "ruled until his eleventh year" or ten years plus a number of months. It has therefore been suggested that Jehoiachin was appointed king at eight by Josiah. Josiah was a godly man who hoped grandson Jehoiachin would turn out better than his wicked sons. However, sticking to an OT theme, the people decided to go against his wishes. They placed instead Josiah's twenty three year old son Jehoahaz. He ruled three months. Jehoiakim ruled 10 years and some months. Jehoiachin began ruling, at last, in his 18th year. (We know he was 18 because he had wives in Babylon.)

This explanation is not conclusive, but it makes sense given the context. Biblical scribes left the "discrepancy" for a reason. I will not be heartbroken if you prove me wrong, however.

Sorry Undeceived. I have stared and stared at this but I cannot make sense of it. If "going back to the original Hebrew" results in a passage that has, at best, different words, and at worst a different meaning, then why isn't the whole bible just re-translated from the original Hebrew.

Regards

Grimesy

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"And he cast down the pieces of silver into the temple and departed, and went out and hanged himself." (MAT 27:5)

"And falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all of his bowels gushed out." (ACT 1:18)

This is one of the best known biblical contradictions regarding the fate of Judas. Please don't say it's a mistranslation.

Regards

Grimesy

It is commonly thought that Judas impaled himself on his sword, since "hang" and "impale" are the same word. It was a common form of suicide. The word for "hang by the neck" did not come about until 1400 AD.

Explain "hang" and "impale" are the same word. Death by hanging was a common form of suicide in the ancient world ref. Sophocles play Artigone and 2 Samuel 17:23 "And when Ahithophel saw that his counsel was not followed, he saddled his ass, and arose and got him home to his house, to his city, and put his household in order, and hanged himself, and died, and was buried in the sepulcher of his father."
Are you saying there was no word for hang in biblical times and the word for "impale" had to cover 2 meanings ?

Regards

Grimesy