Does the Bible Contradict Itself?

[Undeceived]

LUK 23:46: "And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, "Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:" AND HAVING SAID THUS, HE GAVE UP THE GHOST."

JOH 19:30: "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, "It is finished:" AND HE BOWED HIS HEAD, AND GAVE UP THE GHOST."

These both look like last words to me.

See: http://www.rationalchristianity.net/last_words.html
Neither verse is exclusive, saying "these were his very last words." The Gospels often move from one action to the next when in reality they did not occur sequentially. Compare Mark and John. Mark often uses the words "Then" and "Immediately" after Jesus had just said one thing or another. John records the full conversation. Are the two accounts in conflict? No, they both happened. Passages of time such as "then", "immediately" and "and having said thus" are relative and subject to the person writing.

e.g. "It is finished, Father; into your hands I commit my spirit."