(June 7, 2014 at 4:55 pm)mickiel Wrote:(June 7, 2014 at 4:21 pm)SteelCurtain Wrote: Once again, I'll ask you to stop re-defining terms to suit your ends. Archaeological evidence that people or places existed lend exactly zero gravity to the claim of existence or nonexistence for your deity.
I use terms as I understand them. I don't redefine anything. And archaeological evidence of people and places in the bible lend credence to the god of the bible. So we definitely disagree there.
http://www.bible-archaeology.info/bible_...ericho.htm
This analogy has been used before, but I don't remember you addressing it, so I'll pose it to you again. Homer's Iliad and Odyssey contain references to historical events, people, and places. Does this lend any validity to the god claims contained within those texts? Does the fact that Homer sometimes accurately portrayed historical events in his epics mean anything about the existence or nonexistence of Zeus, Hera, Demeter, or Poseidon?
If not, then why is the Bible held to a different standard?
"There remain four irreducible objections to religious faith: that it wholly misrepresents the origins of man and the cosmos, that because of this original error it manages to combine the maximum servility with the maximum of solipsism, that it is both the result and the cause of dangerous sexual repression, and that it is ultimately grounded on wish-thinking." ~Christopher Hitchens, god is not Great
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