So, I'm used to various excuses as to why Christians don't have to follow the laws of the Old Testament. Some gems include Christ's death nullifying it (cuz reasons), Jesus saying Kosher eating laws no longer apply (what about mixed fabrics), or Jesus coming to fulfill the law (never mind that not one iota is supposed to change). Today, I heard a new excuse:
Leviticus only applies to the Levites.
If that's the case, wouldn't 1st and 2nd Corinthians only apply to Corinth and Galatians only apply to Galilee? I'm trying to get the guy to explain his stance in a way that's not special pleading, but he's currently saying that he's "not following me".
Has anyone else heard this excuse? Was it better explained?
Leviticus only applies to the Levites.
If that's the case, wouldn't 1st and 2nd Corinthians only apply to Corinth and Galatians only apply to Galilee? I'm trying to get the guy to explain his stance in a way that's not special pleading, but he's currently saying that he's "not following me".
Has anyone else heard this excuse? Was it better explained?