(July 2, 2014 at 3:37 pm)FatAndFaithless Wrote: The AMA specifically? Because it works with the government (federal and state sometimes) in constructing ethics codes, oversight committees, investigations, and standards. The AMA is bound by law and has an active role in discussing medical law, something I don't think you could attribute to your example of a slavery organization or torturers organization.That's the position that they find themselves in because of their history, yes. But if we are allowing this sort of justification - is it not imaginable to you that other associations could have had a similar history? That the existence of the one (in this case) at least makes the existence of the other a possibility. Would a professional organization with the same status and historical heft of the ama - which centered around some otherwise objectionable profession- enjoy the same weight of persuasive power in this claim?
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