(February 1, 2016 at 12:56 pm)Nihilist Virus Wrote:(February 1, 2016 at 11:44 am)Drich Wrote: Again sport your are arguing with Historical fact not me.
And skin color or color variation if consistent is enough to add a sub species, not to mention hair consistancy and a genetic predisposition to be bigger and stronger than some other races.
Perfect example would be the fact that the American walking hound is about 16" bigger than a beagle has a different hair make up and has a different color variation. Therefore they get a different subspecies classification.
Aside from the physical appearances, their are indeed medical/genetic differences between 'black people' and other races. Ever heard of sickle cell? why do only black people get this affliction? Because their genetic make up is different and it is susceptible to this disease when others are not. This genetic difference sets them apart and makes them unique. Now 100 years ago this difference was indeed recognized accepted and cataloged. Again, that's history, Politically correct or not. It wasn't till Hitler tried to use these genetic differences to justify genocide, that triggered a compromise in our scientific integrity in an effort to try and unify all of under one house or banner.
The point of all of this was to show how even the mighty 'science' serves pop morality, by withholding up popular truth so that society can push propaganda and agenda.
It is in the bible, but so is the 'morality'/changes the jews made.
God's absolutes are absolutely in the bible, But as Jesus pointed out not all the laws the Jews made were of God.
Study, the church or a question to the right person/google will show you where to find God's law.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_Natural_History_of_Rape
Not true. Their were commands detailing the minimum age one could be to be married. (which wasn't until they were considered to be adults.) to have sex with someone before they were confirmed to be an adult was punishable by death. (God's law) which if you or your source material just did a 'thou shalt not be a pedophile' google search I could see how one would assume that.
Which subsequently how we know marry to be a virgin. Joseph took her to be his wife, but they were not married. This means he took responsibility (provided for her fed her) till she was old enough to be married. back then that was the only reason to wait to get married.
I already did that. Deut 22 Read the chapter for context. If you do you will find the only context in which man is permitted to have sex with a woman. And it does not come in the form of a thou shalt... It simply says "a man may marry a woman to have sex with her..." That's the 'permission" Not "thou must be married to have sex."
Again not true.
The command is no one is to have sex outside the confines of a sanctified marriage. or rather a Marriage is the only place to have sanctified sex. which means all other sexual encounters are forbidden. Deu 22 backs into this command by saying a man can marry a woman for the purpose of having sex. This is the only command that sanctifies it in the OT all other examples are forbidden.
The problem here is the same as your 'thou shalt not be a pedophile' claim.. You were looking for an expressed command using the terminology of today. while the terms were not formlized in the OT the principles were indeed spelled out.
That is why you fail.
The truth is right there but because it is not worded in a way to tickle your ears, you'd rather read a lie that is interesting.
If you want to have this debate on what Chapter 22 says, read chapter 22. Otherwise I will leave this ya,huh nut, uh argument to you to complete on your own.
maybe if you read a bible you could actually speak intelligently about it, that way you would not have to rely on anti God web sites and bloggers who hate the bible and God to give you a wrong slanted view of it. So that when you get up on your high horse/soap box and begin to arrogantly bestow all the injustices of God, someone who has book chapter and verse won't make you look like a 'stupid head' by contradicting all of the moral points you were so eager to make.
I have read the entire Bible - that's why I'm an atheist. Duh.
1. As expected half of Deuteronomy 22 has nothing to do with sex. And also as expected, there's no age of consent given in the chapter, which is exactly what we were supposed to be talking about. Remember I said pedophilia is not outlawed in the Bible, and you're like, "Yes it is, read this chapter that has the famous passage about a rape victim marrying her rapist. Viva la Absolute Morality."
2. Regarding Hitler using actual science to determine that his race was superior, I gave you a nudge to present me with the science. I'm arguing with history, not with you... OK... so what science did he cite as the reason for Jews being swines or whatever he called them? What science did he cite for Africans being whatever he called them?
3. I showed in the OP you said that the Bible is the source of absolute morality... you later backpedal and say that the Torah is a perversion of absolute morality... I ask where in the Bible I can find this absolute morality... you tell me to google it. Sir, you're the one making the claim here. If you don't tell me where the Bible gives absolute morality, you're not backing up your own claim.
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Before I spend another minute chasing you down this rabbit hole, you do know that for a Christian The precepts found in the NT are the law explained through the lens of atonement right? and that unless one is an OT Jew trying to follow the OT law to it's letter (including being born a OT Jew) that the rules do not apply under the Covenant of atonement?
I have no problem showing book chapter and verse, breaking the passage down into the hebrew and helping understand the syntax and composition of it all... that said unless you are a OT jew tring to live under that law, then know one can only be condemned by that standard. Why? Because the Law's only purpose is to show sin. It is not a standard to try and live by (morality.)