pop morality

[Nihilist Virus]

I'm getting the same tune.  

"Objective morality comes from only the Bible"

So slavery is ok?

"Those laws are not the real objective standard."

But you said it's in the Bible...

If Paul is the new Moses then women who speak in church are blasphemers... women who don't cover their heads are a shame to the church. Right. I can see how this is a good objective morality that leads to optimal happiness.

What is the difference between the absolute standard of God and 'morality'?

If you knew this distinction, I don't think you could make this argument and not feel stupid. If you don't know this distinction then why make this claim?

I'm just confused on why the absolute standard of God changes as humanity progresses...

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1. As expected half of Deuteronomy 22 has nothing to do with sex.  And also as expected, there's no age of consent given in the chapter, which is exactly what we were supposed to be talking about.  Remember I said pedophilia is not outlawed in the Bible, and you're like, "Yes it is, read this chapter that has the famous passage about a rape victim marrying her rapist.  Viva la Absolute Morality."

2. Regarding Hitler using actual science to determine that his race was superior, I gave you a nudge to present me with the science.  I'm arguing with history, not with you... OK... so what science did he cite as the reason for Jews being swines or whatever he called them?  What science did he cite for Africans being whatever he called them?

3. I showed in the OP you said that the Bible is the source of absolute morality... you later backpedal and say that the Torah is a perversion of absolute morality... I ask where in the Bible I can find this absolute morality... you tell me to google it.  Sir, you're the one making the claim here.  If you don't tell me where the Bible gives absolute morality, you're not backing up your own claim.

....

Before I spend another minute chasing you down this rabbit hole, you do know that for a Christian The precepts found in the NT are the law explained through the lens of atonement right? and that unless one is an OT Jew trying to follow the OT law to it's letter (including being born a OT Jew) that the rules do not apply under the Covenant of atonement?

I have no problem showing book chapter and verse, breaking the passage down into the hebrew and helping understand the syntax and composition of it all... that said unless you are a OT jew tring to live under that law, then know one can only be condemned by that standard. Why? Because the Law's only purpose is to show sin. It is not a standard to try and live by (morality.)

Please explain WTF sin is if it is not violation of the OT laws.  Because it seems quite clear that's exactly what sin is.  Turns out that you recognize the Torah was written by a bunch of savages, so you conclude that Jesus must've died for something else?  But what?  Are you saying this:

1. Jesus tells us that his father made garbage laws, and Jesus invents new ones
2. Jesus dies for our transgressions against the new laws he invented

Does that sum it up?