@ Dritch
Just to be clear, what I'm hearing from you is this:
1. All morallity is popular (relative) morality.
2. God's law as defined by Jesus, is purposely designed to be unfollowable by mortal man.
3. Those portions of god's laws that appear immoral (like slavery, rape, aborting the babies of unfaithful wives, discriminating against bastards, gneocide, etc.) are good because they have helped humanity in some way.
4. The punishment for all violations of god's law is enternal damnation.
5. All violations of god's laws are equally bad.
6. Violations of god's laws are debts to god.
7. Whether other human beings are hurt by your actions is not relevent to whether the action is a sin.
8. To be rightious is to seek atonement from god.
9. God's law is objective.
10. Morality is bad because it changes with time and place.
11. Atheists prefer morality because it's less strict than god's law.
12. Jews are an exception in that they can follow OT God's law to the letter instead of the impossible NT standard and that's OK with god.
Is that correct? If not, which of the above is wrong? I'm not asking for the whys. Just trying to see if I understand your position.
Just to be clear, what I'm hearing from you is this:
1. All morallity is popular (relative) morality.
2. God's law as defined by Jesus, is purposely designed to be unfollowable by mortal man.
3. Those portions of god's laws that appear immoral (like slavery, rape, aborting the babies of unfaithful wives, discriminating against bastards, gneocide, etc.) are good because they have helped humanity in some way.
4. The punishment for all violations of god's law is enternal damnation.
5. All violations of god's laws are equally bad.
6. Violations of god's laws are debts to god.
7. Whether other human beings are hurt by your actions is not relevent to whether the action is a sin.
8. To be rightious is to seek atonement from god.
9. God's law is objective.
10. Morality is bad because it changes with time and place.
11. Atheists prefer morality because it's less strict than god's law.
12. Jews are an exception in that they can follow OT God's law to the letter instead of the impossible NT standard and that's OK with god.
Is that correct? If not, which of the above is wrong? I'm not asking for the whys. Just trying to see if I understand your position.
If there is a god, I want to believe that there is a god. If there is not a god, I want to believe that there is no god.