RE: The Statler Waldorf Balcony
October 18, 2010 at 5:33 pm
(This post was last modified: October 18, 2010 at 5:36 pm by Statler Waldorf.)
(October 18, 2010 at 5:32 pm)Existentialist Wrote: I asked a question of Statler Waldorf a few days ago. I haven't been able to find the reply. I am still interested in it.
Oh hey! Yeah I was looking for that question this morning and could not find it. Could you repeat it please?
(October 18, 2010 at 5:32 pm)orogenicman Wrote:Quote:I think I said just the opposite. The operational definition of time is the same as the calculated definition of time- I said the Bible uses the OBSERVATIONAL definition of time. There is a big difference.
If the operational definition of time is the same as the calculated definition of time, then what big difference is there? None. The Bible doesn't use the operational definition of time, since it hadn't been invented at the time. Secondly, if it had, then the notion of 500 year old partiarchs would never have been made up. Playing around with definitions to suit your argument is very lame.
I don't think you are reading what I am typing, I said the Bible used the OBSERVATIONAL definition of time. Not the OPERATIONAL definition of time.
