(August 18, 2016 at 2:22 pm)Yeauxleaux Wrote:(August 17, 2016 at 11:03 pm)RobertE Wrote: Of course it matters. You are shifting the goalposts to suit your own argument when you are trying to say he is of mixed-race. However, in all sources, just as belle noted, he is classed as Hispanic and lived in an Hispanic area of the United States, therefore he isn't black by any stretch of the imagination.
For the final time because I'm done repeating the same point, being "Hispanic" does not negate your race. "Hispanic" is a culture, nothing more, nothing less. Being a "black Hispanic" or a "white Hispanic" is a legitimate as fuck identity.
If you go to Cuba, Puerto Rico, Colombia, Brazil (Brazil isn't "Hispanic" but it is still "Latino", often used interchangeably) or any other Latin American society, all these societies have massively diverse racial demographics, division between the would-be "white" and "PoC" people of these countries, racial and class politics, and racism that comes with it. Calling all people from or descended from this region a homogeneous "Latin race" would be the same as a Mexican or Brazilian lumping The KKK and The Obamas into one homogeneous "Americana" race. It's ridiculous.
And by all means, drag the Arabs for having an African slave trade of their own, it's a legitimate conversation and Middle Eastern society needs to be held accountable for it. But do NOT use the "oh the Arabs had slaves!" argument to derail conversations about American chattel slavery, and act like it was just normal for the time so black people "just need to get over it because everyone did it". Does the Arabs having a slave trade suddenly undo the centuries of American human trafficking, forced labour, human experimentation (which we never hear about, yes, it happened), rape and splitting families up? Not it doesn't.
It also looks disingenuous because you only now suddenly care about the outrage of slavery when you can use the "oh they did it over here too!" argument.
Please do not confuse hispanic with Lusitanian.