I wonder if there was contact at all. The Norse were certainly not immune to European diseases and we know that after 1492 when there was documented contact the Indians died in droves from contracting those diseases. In fact, Charles Mann in his book 1491 makes the point that most Indians died of European diseases without ever having seen a European. The diseases were carried along internal trade routes and devastated the local population long before Europeans ever landed on the mainland and followed those trails.
If there was contact why is there no evidence either of disease spreading or surviving populations having some degree of immunity? Would make for an interesting discussion.
If there was contact why is there no evidence either of disease spreading or surviving populations having some degree of immunity? Would make for an interesting discussion.
