So you are saying that it's so carefully done that that won't have happened (or happened much)....despite the fact it's been like over 2000 years?
I would think from those times in 2000 years there would have been a lot of changes/mistranslations (if only a handful)...
Since the bible has been going so long and aural traditions (despite that they can be done carefully..) are harder to keep...
Do you deny then that there have really been any mistranslations despite the fact it's been so long, etc?
I'm just asking innocently/ignorantly cos I can't go very far here because I don't have much of a knowledge of the bible. I just know that it isn't evidence basically (and have read 'some bits').
EvF
I would think from those times in 2000 years there would have been a lot of changes/mistranslations (if only a handful)...
Since the bible has been going so long and aural traditions (despite that they can be done carefully..) are harder to keep...
Do you deny then that there have really been any mistranslations despite the fact it's been so long, etc?
I'm just asking innocently/ignorantly cos I can't go very far here because I don't have much of a knowledge of the bible. I just know that it isn't evidence basically (and have read 'some bits').
EvF