Massacre of the Innocents

[Mister Agenda]

crucifixion ordered by Pilate actually happened;

Why? It's probably the most far fetched of the mundane aspects of the Yeshua mythology, unless he was an early zealot rebel whose uprising got cut from the book.

The context of my post makes it clear that I'm referring to the consensus of the historians that Huggy is citing.

However, simply having gotten executed by the Romans doesn't seem that far-fetched to me, minus the obvious embellishments. The Romans were meticulous record-keepers, but they were not so good at preserving them. There is little available for 1st Century Roman-occupied Palestine in the way of Roman records of sentences of execution. It's not like we have reams of criminal proceedings from that time and place with a suspicious gap. We don't have much at all in the way of such records when Pilate was prefect. Outside of the Gospels and Acts, there is just enough mention of Pilate to make it reasonable to accept that the man actually existed and was the 5th Roman prefect of Judaea. To the best of my knowledge, we don't have the name of anyone Pilate authorized the execution of in his ten years as prefect of Judaea from a non-Christian source.

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Do you think that might be why the bible makes no such claim?

If you think the wise men showed up while Jesus was in a manger, then you imply that he was there for two years since that was the amont time it took the magi to travel from the point the star first appeared.

Because God just didn't have enough information to start them heading towards Bethlehem until his son was actually born? Was he afraid Jesus was going to be a preemie that didn't survive? Or do you just not believe in prophecy?