RE: What would be the harm?
December 2, 2018 at 1:36 pm
(This post was last modified: December 2, 2018 at 1:38 pm by Angrboda.)
I'll simply point out that if damage to a rock isn't bad, then it isn't harm because by your own axiom, harm is bad. In that instance, if damage to a rock isn't bad, but it is harm, then that violates your axiom that harm is [always] bad. In this case you either have to give up the contention that the damage to the rock alone is harm, or give up the axiom that harm is bad. You cannot satisfy both conditions simultaneously which is why the example of the rock as an example of objective harm fails. Since we appear to be out of examples, I say let's eat! (Just kidding. I know you gave other examples, I don't recall them at the moment, but unless they succeed where your rock example failed, they too will end up on the scrap heap.)
Later.
(And your last post is again one that I haven't read but only skimmed. Patience, Neo, the answers are coming...)
Later.
(And your last post is again one that I haven't read but only skimmed. Patience, Neo, the answers are coming...)
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