RE: Mathematicians who are finitists.
July 5, 2019 at 8:20 am
(This post was last modified: July 5, 2019 at 8:21 am by A Toy Windmill.)
I'm familiar with the proof. It looks easy enough to formalize in PRA.
Where do you think it requires unbounded quantification over the naturals?
Where do you think it requires unbounded quantification over the naturals?