[Serious] Literal and Not Literal

[Acrobat]

Once again, why would they have shared it? Because another author did in a different book? Why hold two different others, who lived at different times and wrote things at different times to the same set of criteria? You're still not explaining this, you just keep going around in circles and then attempt to throw the question back at me.

Patterns of behavior. Deductive reasoning. I expect people who had visions to behave, as other people who had visions to behave, in the similar predictable ways. Unless I have good reason to think other wise, I would expect to see the predicative indicators.

So, by that logic, maybe your current interpretation of the Bible is wrong?

Sure, but I'd have to have a reason to think I was wrong, to realize that. It could also be said that I don't have a closed interpretation of the Bible either, but one continually being worked out, as has been the case for the last 2000 years. The entirety of that almost has nothing to do with literal vs non-literal distinctions. Christianity will always be a religion in dialogue, and that's what makes it a rich tradition for people such as myself.