(November 6, 2011 at 7:36 pm)IATIA Wrote: I have and it still does not alter the fact 0.999... is not discontinuous and 1.000... is discontinuous at f(x).
Obviously this going to go nowhere, so I acquiesce, go ahead and have the last word.
Don't get me wrong IATIA, but you sound like a 'math creationist', we have bombarded you with proof that 0.999...=1, direct proofs, both algebraic and analitic, I even handed to you in a plate the proof by Reductio in my last post and explained why this is, but still you have offered no proof sustaining your premise, and mixing stuff that doesn't have anything to do with the problem at hand, because it does not 'feel' right to you. Its a very common misundertanding the one you're having about this.
Either way, I'd advise you to get some books on analisis and algebra, university level and read them at the same time you do the math in a notepad.
I may not be a mathematical master, or have a degree on it, but this is a wrater easy problem in math. In my Analisis book, this problem appears right in the first chapter, and believe me, it will only get harder from there on.
