RE: Dialetheism
July 31, 2012 at 1:54 am
(This post was last modified: July 31, 2012 at 1:55 am by CliveStaples.)
(July 30, 2012 at 10:59 pm)toro Wrote: Interesting. Does that make dialetheisms the philosophical and semantic equivalent of zero?
Introducing dialetheism into any system that has the axiom of non-contradiction makes the system trivial--every statement, as well as its negation, is true. So you could think of it as "multiplication by zero", kinda-sorta-not-really.
But there are non-trivial systems which implement dialetheism. So I guess you could think of these as non-integral domains, if you want to keep abusing mathematical terminology.
(July 30, 2012 at 12:40 pm)Rhizomorph13 Wrote: You ever get the feeling that some things exist just because some english major wanted a Phd?
BECUZ EVERRTHIN IS SIMPUL LAWGIC, RIGHT BOYS?!?!
“The truth of our faith becomes a matter of ridicule among the infidels if any Catholic, not gifted with the necessary scientific learning, presents as dogma what scientific scrutiny shows to be false.”
