RE: Jesus - good or evil?
August 15, 2012 at 11:57 pm
(This post was last modified: August 16, 2012 at 12:09 am by Lion IRC.)
FallentoReason Wrote:...let's first establish a few things, namely, the fact that not one NT writer claims to have met the man.
(August 15, 2012 at 11:06 pm)Lion IRC Wrote: FALSE
FallentoReason Wrote:why?
Because Paul is one such NT writer.
Because John of Patmos is one such NT writer.
Because to claim that the NT was not ‘’written by” eye witnesses is no more than to say that a court stenographer is not an eye witness, or the guy working in the newspaper printing factory
wasn’t an eye witness to the event reported on the front page.
If the only person who can "write” is a translator who didn’t see what happened but speaks both languages – that of the eyewitness giving testimony and that of the draft manuscript – why should we assume that they aren’t recording eyewitness testimony?
(August 15, 2012 at 11:14 pm)FallentoReason Wrote:[/quote](August 15, 2012 at 11:06 pm)Lion IRC Wrote: Ambiguous claim.Please explain.
Quote:See what I mean about ambiguity? We can *cough* gather lots ot things as we see fit.Agreed. Let's no avoid the issue here though. Explain the best conclusion we can gather from this please.
When you say they are ''...not spoken about (in terms of the Gospels they supposedly wrote) until the end of the 2nd century" it isnt clear what that assertion amounts to.
Not spoken about by whom?
What does it mean to say...''in terms of the Gospels''?
