(September 20, 2009 at 5:51 pm)EvidenceVsFaith Wrote: What is "of or pertaining to atheism" that can be defined precisely enough to support your point? This is what confuses me.
Pretty much what it says, Evie. This isn't rocket science. Honest. How much clearer can it be: "of or pertaining to atheism."
Wait, maybe you are confused about atheism. Is that it? I guess it's not entirely impossible for an atheist to not know what atheism is, although that would be rather weird. Basically, in a nutshell atheism is the rejection of theism, pretty much by definition because its roots are found in the Greek atheos, which in English would mean—
Come on, really? You know what "atheism" means, Evie. And you have to know what "pertaining" means, and so forth. What's with this Clinton pirouette à la seconde you're pulling? Why are you feigning such an embarrassing level of ignorance? You know very well that atheism is precisely defined: "godless." Which means that atheistic is also precisely defined: "of or pertaining to atheism." Is it that you cannot do the math? It's very simple. If atheism is "godless," then a view is atheistic when it is of, or pertains to, a godless perspective. Still confused? Consider the issue of morality. An atheistic view of morality is one which is godless; that means a morality understood and engaged without any reference to god(s).
This is embarrassing. How in hell can you think "atheistic views" isn't defined precisely enough? How can an atheist be so out of touch with atheism? It's baffling to me.
Man is a rational animal who always loses his temper when
called upon to act in accordance with the dictates of reason.
(Oscar Wilde)
called upon to act in accordance with the dictates of reason.
(Oscar Wilde)
