(March 19, 2013 at 3:21 am)Aractus Wrote:(March 18, 2013 at 9:44 pm)Lion IRC Wrote: So can an imperfect circle have an imperfect, approximate ratio of its circumference divided by its approximate diameter?Of course, but you're not making total sense. You need about the first 9 digits (14 digits if you're really anal) of Pi for the area of any "circle" you'll come across in the real world to approximate its area to a meaningful degree of accuracy...
We are allowed to describe something as an imperfect circle arent we?
Got it! Thanks.
Approximately somewhere between 9 and 14.
Does that apply for fractions of Pi too?
eg.... Pi ÷ 2 as seen below 1.57