(April 6, 2013 at 6:20 am)pocaracas Wrote: Aye... I see... but All the events since the big bang, including the big bang, are finite.Correct
Quote:But this means I can arbitrarily choose the point t=0. My previous sentence put it at the big bang, but I could as well have put it, like you did, at 00:00:00 of 01/Jan/2000 (CET - Central European Time).We can omit the word time totally
All your argument then rests on the fact that your time has a start. And you then mix your time with the dimension time, and claim that the dimension time has a start.
We can say events had a first event
the first event needs an eventer/starter
Quote:I say you can have events before the big bang... infinite events, maybe, but we have no way of measuring anything beyond the big bang, so it will, most likely, forever remain an open question.No, it is impossible (by logic not by science)
the Big Bang is not relevant here.
Quote:So, you defined something, which "is clearly finite", but you didn't define it as finite...It is just for clarifications, the point to prove is for Set 2 not Set 1.