(October 15, 2013 at 10:37 pm)DeistPaladin Wrote:(October 15, 2013 at 5:04 pm)John V Wrote: There it is - you added to the text.No, I didn't. It's the logical conclusion.
Story: "Person A went to that house to see person B."
Without any more information given in the story, the natural assumption is the house belonged to person B. Other elements in that chapter also indicate Bethlehem was Joseph's home, already explained ad neuseum.
Why, if Joseph owned a home in Bethlehem was Jesus born in a manger, and how was it that the shepherds knew where exactly to find Him, they were not given directions to where He was. Just how many mangers were in Bethlehem. Where there crowds gathered to see this birth and guide the shepherds to Jesus. Why would there be crowds to help the shepherds find Jesus, the angels told them of the birth or they would not have known it took place that night. If Joseph owned a house in Bethlehem wouldn't Jesus be born in a bed with Mary. Here are some problems you need to overcome to prove Joseph owned a home there, or even to suppose he owned a home there.
GC
God loves those who believe and those who do not and the same goes for me, you have no choice in this matter. That puts the matter of total free will to rest.
