(October 16, 2013 at 12:47 am)Godschild Wrote:(October 15, 2013 at 10:37 pm)DeistPaladin Wrote: No, I didn't. It's the logical conclusion.
Story: "Person A went to that house to see person B."
Without any more information given in the story, the natural assumption is the house belonged to person B. Other elements in that chapter also indicate Bethlehem was Joseph's home, already explained ad neuseum.
Why, if Joseph owned a home in Bethlehem was Jesus born in a manger, and how was it that the shepherds knew where exactly to find Him, they were not given directions to where He was. Just how many mangers were in Bethlehem. Where there crowds gathered to see this birth and guide the shepherds to Jesus. Why would there be crowds to help the shepherds find Jesus, the angels told them of the birth or they would not have known it took place that night. If Joseph owned a house in Bethlehem wouldn't Jesus be born in a bed with Mary. Here are some problems you need to overcome to prove Joseph owned a home there, or even to suppose he owned a home there.
GC
Ummm, it's fiction man. Fiction. Not real. Made up. It's plagiarized, re-hashed, regurgitated hocus pocus bull shit.
You want to know How and Why - thats easy - it's fiction. When writing a fictional piece of work, I can explain anything I want with, "because of magic, dude!"