RE: My proof for de morgans law
May 29, 2014 at 3:17 am
(This post was last modified: May 29, 2014 at 3:19 am by LastPoet.)
(May 27, 2014 at 8:07 am)LogicMaster Wrote: LastPoet; I don't use my holy book in logic, I always avoid including anything in my holy book because atheists hate even the fact that i am a Muslim, anyway we theists don't avoid formal logic, for me at least i mastered LP (Language of propositions) and a lot of subjects in mathematical logic, I sat down days and ours on complicated proofs in symbolic logic, which i mastered all. I don't take logic from a philosophic account, but from a mathematical account, in my opinion formal logic, is a subset of mathematical intuition, everything is mathematics, any proposition can be transformed into numbers using Godel's numbers.
Your so called proof is gibberish, what we would call in normal speech, a 'word salad'. I know many ways of expressing logical statements, but your nomenclature is unknown to me and doesn't even seem coherent.
This has nothing to do with your holy book, although your religious ideas might be giving you an undeserved arrogance.