Why was Adam exempt from the transgression when the transgression was disobedience?

[orangebox21]

Why was Adam exempt from the transgression when the transgression was disobedience?

Romans 5:12. Sin entered the world through one man [Adam]. Not exempt. His punishment:

17 To Adam he said, “Because you listened to your wife and ate fruit from the tree about which I commanded you, ‘You must not eat from it,’
“Cursed is the ground because of you;
through painful toil you will eat food from it
all the days of your life.
18 It will produce thorns and thistles for you,
and you will eat the plants of the field.
19 By the sweat of your brow
you will eat your food
until you return to the ground,
since from it you were taken;
for dust you are
and to dust you will return.”

"Let the women learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression." (I Timothy 2:11-14)

Being discussed here

I think that Adam, not being deceived, was more culpable than Eve.

By what authority are you making that claim?

Why then did God favor the guiltiest, Adam, with, --- he shall rule over you?

Who was 'guiltiest' is not the determining factor. Read up on federal headship.

Men rule over women? Why when men were not deceived but disobeyed?

Not rule, federal headship.

What was the transgression, --- if not a wise decision to choose knowledge and wisdom and shun immortality of the flesh, --- even if that were possible, --- and why was Adan not punished as hard as Eve when he was clearly more guilty?

Regards
DL

Are you claiming that it was a wise decision to choose knowledge and wisdom over God's word?