(August 4, 2010 at 1:50 am)theVOID Wrote:(August 4, 2010 at 1:19 am)tavarish Wrote: Then how is this a rational argument? I could simply make any assertion and it would be equally justified.
We are talking about whether or not fr0d0's definition of god contains contradictory attributes regarding omniscience and omnipotence... This isn't an argument for his existence, it's an examination of a concept.
I thought that was a given.
The mere fact that a timeless God can cause ANYTHING implies he operates within a construct that includes, but perhaps isn't limited wholly to time. And such a God necessarily cannot be omnipotent and omniscient.
What my point is trying to determine is why fr0d0 believes this without credible evidence, and why he chose this version of God rather than any other. By his own reasoning, any assertion would be equally valid, including the rejection of such a belief. This is illogical... 1 cannot equal 1 and 2 at the same time.
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