In a society like Ancient Greece, where slavery is commonplace, a slave is property.
Like a car is property, or a table is property.... or a sex-toy is property.
As property, consent is not required, and resistance is not advisable, so it is to be expected that many slave owners had sex with their slaves. Is that rape?
From the societal point-of-view, that would have been perfectly normal and not rape. Rape would be reserved for free-folk.
Is it rape when you have sex with a blow-up doll?
How about one of those "realistic" dolls that cost as much as a house?
How about is it's a realistic doll with Artificial Intelligence?
What if it's a cybernetic doll, half-biological, half-silicon with AI and appearance of feelings ([url=http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0092746/]cherry 2000 reference)?
When does sex with property become rape?
Am I going way too out of the box?
Or just shadowing a despicable act (rape) with worse one (slavery)?
Is slavery always wrong?
