(September 13, 2010 at 6:31 pm)theVOID Wrote:
I am not farmiliar with the arguement and don't really have time to research it. I think I stopped at post 12, only for time constraints, but here's my opinion on the OP.
It is an uninformed dichotomy and given the options present I would choose 1. I believe 2 is also true. Morality, however as this is leading to is, is defined as subjective morality while we're trying to explain that God is an objective morality thus it's more along the lines of an equivocation fallacy. I don't get my subjective morals from God, but from myself. Then there are societal morals by which a society calls itself civilized. I do however model my morality towards the objective moraility of God rather to the shifting virtues of society.
"There ought to be a term that would designate those who actually follow the teachings of Jesus, since the word 'Christian' has been largely divorced from those teachings, and so polluted by fundamentalists that it has come to connote their polar opposite: intolerance, vindictive hatred, and bigotry." -- Philip Stater, Huffington Post
always working on cleaning my windows- me regarding Johari
always working on cleaning my windows- me regarding Johari