IS it no true that in most cases the one being offended or the "offendee" places the fault on the offender? This is not a logical reaction and here's why: Being offended is somewhat of a personal preference. Certain things offend certain people, and certain things offend people and don't offend others. The quote "Nobody can offend without your consent" is a perfect example. It is not the offenders fault that the offendee was offended. The only reason the offendee is offended is because they allow themselves to be offended. Therefore the blame cannot be placed on the "offender".
-Only with the ultimate knowledge of all things will man have come to know himself. For things are but the boundaries of man. -> Friedrich Nietzsche
