Banned at another atheist forum

[John V]

Actually you got THREE wrong there, Alpha Retard.
1. You did not demonstrate that any miracle ever once occurred.

As already noted, the issue is definition, not actuality.

2. You have not even stated what a "Biblical miracle" is, and

Of course not, as that was your term, not mine. When I asked what defintion of miracle you use, you said, "I use the Biblical one. A completely natural event, in which a believer chooses to "see the hand of god operating."
http://atheistforums.org/thread-24729-po...#pid637890

I've asked you to provide Biblical passages supporting your position, but you instead offer up red herrings, and now pretend that your position is my position.

3. You did not even get what I said about Biblical miracles.

I get it. I think it's incorrect. I've asked for Biblical support, but instead I get obfuscation.

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So if someone tells a blind man to see in the name of god, and he does, that's just a low probability natural event being attributed to god. Gotcha!

Do you believe everything you read?

Obviously not.

If the above occurred and you were satisfied it was legitimate, would you consider it to be just a low probability natural event, i.e. the supposed healer just got lucky and the blind guy coincidentally had a natural spontaneous healing at that instant?