RE: Christian "faith" vs. plain "faith"
March 25, 2015 at 10:06 pm
(This post was last modified: March 25, 2015 at 10:25 pm by Pyrrho.)
(March 25, 2015 at 9:08 pm)watchamadoodle Wrote:(March 25, 2015 at 8:40 pm)Pyrrho Wrote:I'm surprised that the dictionary definitions in your quote all suggest that faith is either 0% or 100%. It would be very common to say "I don't have too much faith in political promises", or "how much faith do you have in Social Security?" Those statement imply that faith can range between 0% and 100%. Maybe I'm weird, but I would use "faith" in those sentences commonly.
Take another look. "Strong belief" is not the same as 100% certainty.
The main thing, though, it that there is a difference between "trust" and in "belief without evidence," and that is where people often end up talking past each other. One can trust someone or some thing for good reason (i.e., because of the evidence), though some people trust without evidence (which is stupid). "Trust," it itself, is neither good nor bad. It is a question of what one trusts, and, more importantly, why one trusts it, that determines whether the trust is reasonable or stupid.
With the second of the definitions from Oxford, the "spiritual conviction rather than proof" is code for having no evidence for the belief. If there were evidence, it would be "proof" in the relevant sense of the term:
http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/defini...ctCode=all
As for "belief without evidence," that is always stupid. And immoral. For why it is immoral, see the essay by William Kingdon Clifford at:
http://ajburger.homestead.com/files/book.htm
If you want to read a batshit crazy response, read the essay by William James after it at the above link. If you have trouble realizing that it is batshit crazy, read the essay that follows the William James essay by A.J. Burger.
"A wise man ... proportions his belief to the evidence."
— David Hume, An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding, Section X, Part I.