RE: The Moral Argument for God
December 18, 2015 at 5:53 pm
(This post was last modified: December 18, 2015 at 6:02 pm by athrock.)
(December 18, 2015 at 2:11 pm)TheRocketSurgeon Wrote:(December 18, 2015 at 1:50 pm)athrock Wrote: The definition has been posted in this thread many times. Here it is again:
Objective moral values are those whose truth is independent of individual, personal opinions or societal conventions.
You apparently missed my argument. You cannot define something into existence. My whole point is that your claim of "objective" morals exist only as a concept; the reality is quite different, as simply looking around will tell us.
Perhaps not but you can reason your way to an understanding that something exists. Surely there are concepts in everyday usage that might be used as imperfect examples of this process? What about imaginary numbers? Do they really exist? Or are they merely ideas that mathematicians agree upon? Merely "defining" the Flying Spaghetti Monster (by describing its characteristics) hasn't made it real, either...other than as an idea.
However, it seems to me that by use of our reason, we can conclude that there are certain moral values, duties and obligations that are universally accepted and therefore, objectively true. Of course, others including you, seem to dispute that objective moral values exist. Yet, even our lived experience seems to tell us that they do.
(December 18, 2015 at 1:50 pm)athrock Wrote:Quote:You can google the phrase and find dozens of articles that might help you.
You're presuming I haven't read what is claimed to be objective morality; I simply find it to be a ridiculous concept that falls apart under actual examination.
Then I look forward to your informed explanation of why this is so.
(December 18, 2015 at 1:50 pm)athrock Wrote:Quote:Right, so society is NOT the source of objective morality. Nicely done.
Correct. Society is the source of subjective morality. You can't have it both ways; you're claiming that objective morality is that which is found universally in societies, and then trying to say that societies have nothing to do with morality. There are some things that are so detrimental to societies that they are almost universal, but there's certainly no such thing as a universal rule of moral behavior among humans. As I said, there are always exceptions and variations.
Whoops. Time out. There is an error in what you have written. I have repeatedly stated as you noted that "objective morality is that which is found universally in societies" but finding morality there does not imply that it is the societies themselves which are the source of this morality. I can find beer universally in fraternity houses but that fact does not mean the fraternities are the breweries, does it?
However, it is your insistence upon "exceptions and variations" that is the real issue. I see that you get to this point next.
(December 18, 2015 at 1:50 pm)athrock Wrote:Quote:No, the phrase acknowledges the existence of something which we all recognize but struggle to accept as true or define. Even in this thread, opinions vary as to whether moral values are objective or subjective.
Is there ANYTHING you can think of that is ALWAYS wrong no matter what the circumstances?
You know the candidates: child abuse, rape, murder, racial discrimination...
Are you willing to hold that one or more of these is occasionally acceptable?
Not acceptable to my social/moral standards, which are informed by Humanism and the post-Enlightenment Western cultural viewpoint, no. But that's a far cry from "always wrong no matter the circumstances". I certainly do consider child abuse, rape, etc, to be wrong... but I'd have a hard time explaining to Joseph that he shouldn't have married Mary at 13-14, even though it's pretty much universally acknowledged that that was "marrying age" at that time. Today, it would be considered child abuse, and certainly not a basis for the alleged "greatest [morality] story ever told".
That's an answer? That's YOUR answer to my question?
This is why I wonder if the Moral Argument may not be the Achilles' Heel of atheism. The inability to answer direct questions about morality must haunt the thinking skeptic. Non-thinkers suffer no ill effects, of course.
(December 18, 2015 at 1:50 pm)athrock Wrote:Quote:To the contrary, the Moral Argument is the Achilles' Hell of atheism. The reason that folks in this thread struggle to refute it and why atheist organization spend money on billboards is because they have not been able to actually answer the questions:
Why is something really wrong and not just a matter of personal preference or group pressure?
How do you know if something is objectively wrong?
1) It is a matter of how much we, culturally, value a particular personal "right", and whether or not we consider a behavior from other cultures to be so harmful that we must attempt to repress it in other societies as well as our own; an example is our resistance to groups who believe the education of women is immoral, and who are willing to kill/kidnap women to stop it, in places like Afghanistan and Nigeria.
So, if genital mutilation of female children is acceptable "over there", it's okay? C'mon...I don't believe you actually believe this.
Quote:2) As should be clear, by now, there is no "objectively wrong"; there are only arguments to be made for the rights of every person, regardless of social prejudices. This concept of universal rights was almost unique in history when the British established the concept as a development of the Danelaw that became known as The Rights of Englishment, in its various incarnations throughout history and post-Enlightenment, and eventually wound up as the bulk of the US Constitution's Bill of Rights... and even that, we've had to expand almost continuously throughout our nation's history.
Robert Heinlein said it best, I think, in Time Enough for Love : "Sin lies only in hurting other people unnecessarily. All other 'sins' are invented nonsense. (Hurting yourself is not sinful -- just stupid.)"
You wrote: "there are...arguments to be made for the rights of every person, regardless of social prejudices. [emphasis added]"
I think you've just made my point.
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(December 18, 2015 at 2:17 pm)Divinity Wrote:(December 18, 2015 at 1:50 pm)athrock Wrote:
We're not talking about Jewish or Christian morality...we're talking about whether something, ANYTHING is objectively moral.
Simply being a former Christian with a chip on one's shoulder is an incomplete understanding of atheism.
So, take off your anti-Christian glasses, and try to see the world as a theist sees it (or as a true atheist OUGHT to see it).
If objective morality means there is god, then that means that the Christians, the Jews, the Muslims, the Hindu and all the other fucking religions out there with subjective morality, have the wrong fucking religion. Because their religion isn't objective. Meaning that the argument isn't an argument for THEIR god, it's an argument for A god (and a Deist god at that). So at best Deists could use the argument in their favor. But certainly not the Christians, Jews, Muslims, and shit ton of other religions out there.
Bingo!
The Moral Argument is an argument for the existence of (a) god.
Not for Jesus. Not for Allah. Not for Baha'u'llah. Not for Krishna.
So, the fact that all these different groups have some moral values in common with one another (as well as with atheists) seems to suggest that these common moral values transcend them all and may be considered "objective" rather than "subjective".
Agreed?