(May 20, 2016 at 5:02 am)Ignorant Wrote: Consider the proposition:
"The truthfulness of all propositions must be empirically validated to count as knowledge."
If the above proposition is known as true, then it must be (as a proposition) subject to empirical validation. <= Is that the case?
If it is the case, how was it empirically validated?
If it does not require empirical validation, AND it is known to be true, then there seems to be a proposition (that one) whose truthfulness is known without empirical validation.
If that is true, then the original proposition is false (because NOT all propositions are subject to empirical validation, only some)
What do we think?
Yes, an epistemological take on Gödel's incompleteness theorems.