It seems that their argument is one of semantic: replace 3 spatial + time by 4 spatial. However, if it is more than that, I would like to see what it is that they are suggesting. We know that in the Lorentz transformations, time and space get mixed up, yielding length contraction and time dilation, which are two phenomena that have been observed. We also know that QFT requires that the Lagrangian be Lorentz invariance. So the concept of 3D + T is deeply ingrained into the theory.
Like I said, if it is just semantic, then it's no big deal.
Like I said, if it is just semantic, then it's no big deal.