(March 15, 2017 at 7:40 pm)Huggy74 Wrote:(March 15, 2017 at 5:42 pm)The Valkyrie Wrote: If he was in her womb and she needed to give birth to him, even without "biological components", she is still the mother, surrogate, or not.*emphasis mine*
Which brings up the question, once again: Why was Mary used in the first place? Surely god could have created his own Earthly avatar, fully formed, without going through the process of knocking up a man's wife?
Yes, and calling her "woman" and not "mother" or even "Mary", is an indicator of being a spiteful little shit.
The short answer is to fulfill the scripture.
Jesus's purpose was to be the 'goel' for mankind.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goel
Quote:Goel (the Go’el HaDahm) is a Hebrew term which comes from the word lig'ol ("to redeem"), hence meaning "redeemer", which in the Hebrew Bible and the rabbinical tradition denotes a person who as the nearest relative of another is charged with the duty of restoring the rights of another and avenging his wrongs.
Quote:The obligations of the goel include the duty to redeem the relative from slavery, if the latter had been obliged to sell himself into serfdom (Leviticus 25: 48-49); to repurchase the property of a relative who had had to sell it because of poverty; to avenge the blood of his relative; to marry his brother's widow in order to have a son for his brother, in case the brother had not got any son to pass his name forth (Deuteronomy 25:5-6); and to receive the restitution if the injured relative had died (Numbers 5:8).
If Jesus was to redeem all that Adam had lost, then he had to be related to Adam.
If he had no biological connection, how was he related to Adam?
"The last superstition of the human mind is the superstition that religion in itself is a good thing." - Samuel Porter Putnam
