(January 2, 2018 at 2:58 pm)mh.brewer Wrote:(January 2, 2018 at 1:17 pm)Dan Brooks Wrote:
How am I taking the dodge? What did I not answer? Why we don't treat leprosy the same now? Because we use antibiotics now. Just like Frank's Red Hot, we put that s**t on everything! So should God have told them to take antibiotics? I guess they should have gone to their local drug store and gotten one. Or maybe God gave them an alternative method since there weren't any readily available antibiotics at the time.
I have no idea what claim I made that I haven't supported. You asked me two questions. My first response only answered the second question, so I assume you mean I dodged the first question. Well, the above is my answer to that. As for making a claim, I don't remember what claim I made that I didn't support. I was just answering your question.
Why do we use antibiotics now? Why isn't the bible's/gods treatment still used?
Does gods power to cure not stand the test of time? I think the obvious answer is........NO. Which then begs the question of did it ever work. Answer, apparently not or it would have been used from that time until now. So what changed?
This can be applied to all of gods "science" in the bible. Why, because it was not from a god. It came from the minds of men.
I'm actually still looking for the treatment and cure for leprosy that you're speaking of. I don't see a procedure for that. I see a cleansing ceremony that was to be done on the day the person was pronounced clean, but it wasn't a treatment or cure for it. Leviticus 13 just says how to check and see if the leprosy is contagious or not (clean or unclean). And the beginning of chapter 14 talks about the birds and the blood and stuff, on the day he was pronounced clean. But I don't see a treatment or procedure for healing the leprosy in there. Unless you're referring to a different passage. I don't have the whole Bible memorized, lol.
Jesus healed leprosy, but other than that, I don't see a cure for it in there.
As far as God's science in the Bible, here's an example.
Archimedes is said to have come up with the first accurate estimate for pi in the 200s BC. But apparently Solomon knew pi hundreds of years before in the 900s BC. (And whether or not he was the first to do it doesn't matter. What matters is if it was accurate. And even more than Solomon getting it right, it matters if the biblical account gets it right.)
2 Chronicles 4
2 Also he made a molten sea of ten cubits from brim to brim, round in compass, and five cubits the height thereof; and a line of thirty cubits did compass it round about.
People like to make fun of this and say that the Bible indicates that pi=3. But if you read the rest of the passage, it doesn't indicate that.
5 And the thickness of it was an handbreadth, and the brim of it like the work of the brim of a cup, with flowers of lilies; and it received and held three thousand baths.
So it had a brim like the brim of the cup, all the way around it. And it was 10 cubits from brim to brim. 10 cubits is about 15 feet, so if the brim was about 4 inches wide, (which is a fairly reasonable estimation based on its diameter, and the fact that it was as the brim of a cup) then that reduces the inside measurement to about 14 feet 4 inches (4 inches off of each side). So that makes the inside measurement about 172 inches. The line of 30 cubits is about 45 feet. So that's 540 inches. So you have a diameter of approximately 172 inches, and a circumference of approximately 540 inches. Pi times diameter = circumference, so circumference divided by diameter = pi. Well 540 divided by 172 is 3.13953488372. That's pretty close to pi isn't it? And of course it would have to be actual pi if the measurements would have been exact. But that's a pretty dang good estimation I think. A lot better than the Egyptians who had it at about 3.16, or the Babylonians who had it at about 3.125.
