(March 23, 2018 at 3:48 pm)vulcanlogician Wrote: Not aware based on lack of Biblical and/or historical knowledge. Nor do I see how it is relevant to how slavery is generally immoral.
It's clearly relevant to your claim that slavery was abolished without any direction from the Bible.
Quote:Wrong. There are two metaethical approaches to objective morality--neither requires a subjective sense.
You lose right there. If morality is objective, then there's one morality. You have two already.
Quote:The first is moral naturalism, the idea that moral facts are empirically discernible. Khem seems to like this route. I do not. I am an intuitionist. To me moral facts are self-evident. No subjectivity involved in either view.LMAO. OK, slavery is objectively moral, because some slave owners found that to be self-evident.
Quote:As to subjectivity in discerning a proper theory, wrong again. Dude there are logical arguments for/against say hedonism or virtue ethics. Nobody is a virtue ethicist because it "feels right."
Cool, tell us which theory is objectively correct.
Quote:What do you mean, "Atheists used to be good at this?" It helps if you don't ignore half the post of someone you are arguing with.
Atheists used to get that ultimately morality is subjective.