Pedophilia in the Bible: this is a porn book

[John V]

There were two words used for female slaves, which were “amah” and “shifhah”.[38] Based upon the uses in different texts, the words appear to have the same connotations and are used synonymously, namely that of being a sexual object, though the words themselves appear to be from different ethnic origins. Men assigned their female slaves the same level of dependence as they would a wife. Close levels of relationships could occur given the amount of dependence placed upon these women.[38] These slaves had two specific roles: a sexual use and companionship.[38] Their reproductive capacities were valued within their roles within the family. Marriage with these slaves was not unheard of or prohibited. In fact, it was a man’s concubine that was seen as the “other” and shunned from the family structure. These female slaves were treated more like women than slaves which may have resulted, according to some scholars, due to their sexual role, which was particularly to “breed” more slaves.[38] A father could sell his daughter into this life and she could be released within six years if she was not claimed by or assigned to another man.

Sexual slavery, or being sold to be a wife, was common in the ancient world. Throughout the Old Testament, the taking of multiple wives is recorded many times.[39][40] An Israelite father could sell his unmarried daughters into servitude, with the expectation or understanding that the master or his son could eventually marry her (as in Exodus 21:7-11.) It is understood by Jewish and Christian commentators that this referred to the sale of a daughter, who "is not arrived to the age of twelve years and a day, and this through poverty."[41]

And if a man sells his daughter to be a female slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. If she does not please her master, who has betrothed her to himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He shall have no right to sell her to a foreign people, since he has dealt deceitfully with her. And if he has betrothed her to his son, he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters. If he takes another wife, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, and her marriage rights. And if he does not do these three for her, then she shall go out free, without paying money.

— Exodus 21:7-11

(my emphasis)


What about these verses?

The passage shows that they weren't into sex with children. The scenario is of a poor family which needs money. If the daughter were of marriageable age (puberty), they would give her to a husband for the bride price. That they don't do such indicates that the girl was not yet old enough for marriage, and that the law drew this distinction. As your commentary says, An Israelite father could sell his unmarried daughters into servitude, with the expectation or understanding that the master or his son could eventually marry her (as in Exodus 21:7-11.) It is understood by Jewish and Christian commentators that this referred to the sale of a daughter, who "is not arrived to the age of twelve years and a day, and this through poverty."

Until of age, the girl was a slave, but not a sex slave as just explained. 

Once of age, either the man or one of his sons could marry her. At such time she became a wife with full rights, and was no longer a slave. Note that her rights were protected: "If he takes another wife, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, and her marriage rights." Interestingly, her marriage rights - i.e. her rights to sex from the husband - were protected. That's not a provision you would expect for a sex slave. "And if he does not do these three for her, then she shall go out free." Again, that's not the right of a slave, this was the normal right of a wife.

The only way you can call this sex slavery is if you think of arranged marriages as sex slavery. Over 50% of marriages worldwide today are arranged.

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They engaged in genocide on pretext.  

What's your evidence of that?