Pedophilia in the Bible: this is a porn book

[WinterHold]

If he'd already hardened his heart himself, why did god have to even interfere?

It was a prayer for Moses:

Sura 10, The Quran:
( 88 )   And Moses said, "Our Lord, indeed You have given Pharaoh and his establishment splendor and wealth in the worldly life, our Lord, that they may lead [men] astray from Your way. Our Lord, obliterate their wealth and harden their hearts so that they will not believe until they see the painful punishment."

( 89 )   [Allah] said, "Your supplication has been answered." So remain on a right course and follow not the way of those who do not know."

( 90 )   And We took the Children of Israel across the sea, and Pharaoh and his soldiers pursued them in tyranny and enmity until, when drowning overtook him, he said, "I believe that there is no deity except that in whom the Children of Israel believe, and I am of the Muslims."

( 91 )   Now? And you had disobeyed [Him] before and were of the corrupters?

Just like alpha said: the pharaoh brought it upon himself.

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Actually, it's worse. Pharoah was all set to concede and set Moses et al free unconditionally. It took the perverse "god" to prevent that.

Yeah, I checked and I could find no evidence of him freely hardening his heart. God decided beforehand that he would.

When you do this:

Sura 28, The Quran:
( 4 )   Indeed, Pharaoh exalted himself in the land and made its people into factions, oppressing a sector among them, slaughtering their [newborn] sons and keeping their females alive. Indeed, he was of the corrupters.

( 5 )   And We wanted to confer favor upon those who were oppressed in the land and make them leaders and make them inheritors

then you are hardening your heart.

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How can you possibly convince me that "kill" here isn't "kill"?
and the little ones does not refer to children?

Why would I try to convince you of that, as I didn't make that argument?

You just said:
https://atheistforums.org/thread-53995-p...pid1722501
?
So you literally said that "and the little ones does not refer to children"; but refers to "wives at the age of puberty". Correct me if I am wrong.

and the enslaving of women and female kids does not involve "rape" ?

As shown, the women became wives. They were not slaves. They were not raped, unless you take the position that arranged marriage is rape.

Nothing was shown; TBH.
What shown is the biblical verse saying:

And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Avenge the children of Israel of the Midianites ... And they warred against the Midianites, as the LORD commanded Moses; and they slew all the males ... And the children of Israel took all the women of Midian captives, and their little ones ... And Moses was wroth with the officers ... And Moses said unto them, Have ye saved all the women alive? ... Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves. Numbers 31:1-18

In the best case scenario; this verse allows child marriage for Christians.